Thread

1. Glyptodon · 1790003958 · focus · HN ↗

   Arbitration has no particular basis in law so much as agreeing that a third party reaches some conclusion to resolve a civil dispute, though the law may be used to justify the conclusion, the conclusion is binding regardless, so as to make it so there's no appeals, etc., right? So by participating in the arbitration it means there's only the conclusion and no basis to object or appeal, right?

   1. advisedwang · 1790005641 · focus · HN ↗

      Federal law [1] and at least one state [2] provide routes for appeal to real courts.

      [1] <a href="https:&#x2F;&#x2F;www.law.cornell.edu&#x2F;uscode&#x2F;text&#x2F;9&#x2F;16" rel="nofollow">https:&#x2F;&#x2F;www.law.cornell.edu&#x2F;uscode&#x2F;text&#x2F;9&#x2F;16

      [2] <a href="https:&#x2F;&#x2F;app.leg.wa.gov&#x2F;RCW&#x2F;default.aspx?cite=7.06.050" rel="nofollow">https:&#x2F;&#x2F;app.leg.wa.gov&#x2F;RCW&#x2F;default.aspx?cite=7.06.050

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