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Why isn't mutable a subtype of immutable, or vice versa?

28 points · 56 comments · ibobev

  1. raffael_de · · focus · HN ↗
    as far as my set theoretical intuition goes, immutable has to be a subtype of mutable, if anything.
    1. cubefox · · focus · HN ↗
      No? "Immutable" means "not mutable", so mutability and immutability are mutually exclusive.
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