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Iran school bombing: grounds to believe US was behind atrocity, UN finds

354 points · 307 comments · hebelehubele

  1. Wildgoose · · focus · HN ↗
    Seeing as it was a "double tap" it was clearly a deliberate target. Bomb the school, wait until officers from the nearby base with kids at the school arrive to try and rescue their daughters and hit it again. Clearly a war crime, possibly using Israeli targeting information, which clouds which State is ultimately responsible.
    1. jvanderbot · · focus · HN ↗
      Yes, the definition of war crime is not "intentionally targeted building" it is "intentionally targeted building that it knew was non-military and full of civilians". If you plausibly believed it to be a military target, then it's plausibly not a war crime.

      The question about whether US launched the missiles is not really in dispute, the intent and knowledge is in dispute. NYT did a great analysis essentially concluding it was plausibly a mistake, not an intentional or indiscriminate civilian attack.

      More here: <a href="https:&#x2F;&#x2F;news.ycombinator.com&#x2F;item?id=49739018#49741081">https:&#x2F;&#x2F;news.ycombinator.com&#x2F;item?id=49739018#49741081

      1. orwin · · focus · HN ↗
        The double tap to me is really what is cruel. I understand americans don&#x27;t want to hear it, because they need to believe their military is moral, but a double tap to me show cruelty and willingness to target doctor, nurses, firemen and any person courageous enough to help.

        The US military and its sailors already showed me everything i wont to know about them when i saw the report on them shooting torpedoes at capsized boats.

        1. jvanderbot · · focus · HN ↗

          [dead]

          1. mahboi · · focus · HN ↗
            Is there some other purpose of a double tap besides killing first responders? Maybe to hit underground targets, or the second hit was unintentional?
            1. jvanderbot · · focus · HN ↗
              reverse question: Why does everyone assume that only one missile is justified per target? I think this line of reasoning came out of the &quot;double tap&quot; strikes used in Gaza where a five to 30m wait allowed a crowd to gather.

              What was the time between hits in this case?

              1. mahboi · · focus · HN ↗
                Because the first missile kills the intended targets. So the second one is implied to be for whoever comes to pick up the bodies.
                1. jvanderbot · · focus · HN ↗
                  That is the colloquial definition of a double tap.

                  That is not automatically the case whenever two missiles strike a target.

                  The &quot;follow up&quot; hit requires a delay. The delay is not accidental - you want to give time for a crowd to gather.

                  All targets in the area received &gt;= 1 missile, and all somewhat close together, from the NYT analysis.

                  1. culi · · focus · HN ↗
                    Well that&#x27;s exactly what happened. US hit the building and many died. All the surviving students and teachers rushed to a prayer hall for protection but almost exactly 40 minutes later US airplanes (not surface missiles) hit the building again.

                    All of these facts are outlined in US&#x27; own internal investigation and in the UN&#x27;s fact-finding mission.

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